=n!a_n.
So since f has a series representation
f(x) = a0+a1(x-a)+...an(x-a)n+... |
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it must be
f(x) = f(a)+f¢(a)(x-a)+f¢¢(a)/2! (x-a)2+....+f(n)/n! (x-a)n+.... |
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since we know that
f(x) = |
¥ å
k = 0
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f(k) k!
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(x-a)k. |
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Maclaurin series when a = 0.
Next
- More Taylor series
- Application of power series
- Fourier series
- Sample paper
Next lecture
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